HUMAN GENOME PROJECT TAKE HOME TEST

DIRECTIONS: Select only ONE best response for each question or statement.

  1. A chromosome analysis (karyotype) cannot be done on a mature

    A. amniocyte
    B. bone marrow cell
    C. chorionic villi cell
    D. red blood cell

  2. The segment of DNA from a gene that is transcribed into an mRNA molecule and then translated into a protein is called a(n)

    A. exon
    B. intron
    C. operon
    D. promoter
    E. TATA box

  3. Which relationship is correct?

    A. genes are segments of chromosomes
    B. chromosomes are segments of genes
    C. genes are the building blocks of DNA
    D. chromosomes are the building blocks of DNA

  4. The estimated number of base pairs making up the entire human genome is

    A. 3,000
    B. 3,000,000
    C. 3,000,000,000
    D. 3,000,000,000,000

  5. A mutation cannot be passed from an individual person to their offspring through a

    A. gametic cell
    B. germ cell
    C. somatic cell
    D. sperm cell

  6. A man has a genotype CcDd. C & D are on one chromosome and c & d are on the homologous chromosome. If crossing over between these genes occurs in meiosis, what is the maximum number of genetically different sperm cells which could result?

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 4
    D. 8
    E. 16

  7. A couple, both average in height, has two children. Their first child has achondroplasia, an autosomal dominant form of dwarfism. Their second child does not have achondroplasia. The proband is the result of

    A. a new gene mutation
    B. both children show variable expression of the gene
    C. maternal folic acid vitamin supplements given during the second pregnancy
    D. their second child had a 50% chance of getting the gene for achondroplasia

  8. Autosomal recessive means that in order to inherit this type of disease, a person must inherit

    A. both an abnormal X chromosome and an abnormal Y chromosome
    B. one altered allele from each parent
    C. the altered allele only from an affected mother
    D. the altered allele only from the father

  9. Which of the following techniques would reveal the genotypic sex of a fetus?

    A. alpha-fetoprotein analysis
    B. þF508
    C. electrophoresis to determine RFLPs
    D. karyotype analysis
    E. ultrasound

  10. A restriction endonuclease such as BamH1 or EcoR1 is named according to the

    A. bacterium from which it came
    B. kind of organism whose DNA it can recognize
    C. nitrogen bases identified by the enzyme
    D. scientist who first developed the chemical
    E. vector virus into which it has been inserted

  11. DNA is cut into fragments by

    A. DNA polymerases
    B. cosmids
    C. restriction enzymes
    D. ribosomes
    E. YACs

  12. What is the best way to replicate a short segment of DNA when the sample size is small?

    A. autoradiography
    B. karyotyping
    C. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
    D. Sanger sequencing
    E. somatic cell hybridization

  13. In the process of DNA sequencing, the length of the DNA segment will be determined by a

    A. dideoxynucleotide
    B. DNA ligase
    C. DNA polymerase
    D. genetic code
    E. heat stable bacteria

  14. Which of the following is used to attach nucleotides into a strand of DNA?

    A. DNA polymerase
    B. ligase
    C. messenger RNA
    D. primer
    E. transferase

  15. Gel electrophoresis of a human tissue can determine

    A. age of an individual
    B. chromosomal aneuploidy
    C. criminal tendencies of an individual
    D. intelligence of an individual
    E. variations in DNA sequences

  16. If the sequence of DNA is ATCCGATC what is the complementary sequence on mRNA?

    A. AUCCGAUC
    B. AUGGCAUC
    C. TAGGCTAG
    D. UACCGUAC
    E. UAGGCUAG

  17. Which of the following genetic conditions is detectable by examining a karyotype?

    A. cystic fibrosis
    B. Down syndrome
    C. Huntington disease
    D. Marfan syndrome
    E. sickle cell anemia

  18. A couple's first child is affected with an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. Any other child they bear will have a 1 in 4 chance of being affected with this condition. This means that

    A. if they have 4 more children, only the last one will be affected
    B. if they have 3 more children, these three will be unaffected
    C. the next child has a 25% chance of being affected
    D. the next child has a 25% chance of being unaffected

  19. An individual with an XO karyotype has

    A. cri-du-chat syndrome
    B. Down syndrome
    C. fragile-X syndrome
    D. Klinefelter syndrome
    E. Turner syndrome

  20. A prenatal screening used to detect spina bifida is

    A. alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay
    B. unconjugated estriol assay
    C. florescent in situ hybridization (FISH) study
    D. human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) assay

  21. Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a/an

    A. autosomal dominant condition
    B. autosomal recessive condition
    C. chromosomal aneuploidy
    D. multifactorial condition
    E. X-linked recessive condition

  22. Which of the following techniques is not used for examining chromosome number of a fetus

    A. amniocentesis
    B. chorionic villus sampling
    C. percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
    D. ultrasound

  23. An example of an X-linked condition is

    A. Hemophilia A
    B. Huntington disease
    C. osteogenesis imperfecta
    D. Tay-Sachs disease

  24. Which genetic condition is due to an autosomal dominant gene?

    A. cystic fibrosis
    B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    C. neurofibromatosis
    D. PKU (phenylketonuria)

  25. All pregnant women who will be age 35, or older, at delivery are routinely offered a diagnostic test to evaluate their fetus for

    A. cleft lip
    B. chromosome aneuploidy
    C. Huntington disease
    D. neurofibromatosis
    E. phenylketonuria

  26. Results of newborn screening tests for phenylketonuria (PKU) are automatically sent to all of the following except

    A. hospital where child is born
    B. parents
    C. primary care physicians
    D. state department of health

  27. A goal of the Human Genome Project (HGP) is to

    A. clone body parts
    B. determine which traits are most desirable
    C. increase human intelligence quotas (IQ)
    D. map and sequence human DNA
    E. predict phenotypes from small samples of DNA

  28. A couple is planning a family. The woman has been diagnosed with an autosomal dominant genetic condition. Therefore

    A. artificial insemination by donor sperm is an option to decrease the risk of an affected child
    B. there is a 100% chance that any child of theirs will be affected with this condition
    C. this couple should not have children
    D. this couple needs information on the pleiotropic effects of the gene

  29. Genetic counseling

    A. focuses only on individuals who are pregnant
    B. helps the family understand options available for dealing with genetic conditions
    C. routinely involves a chromosome test
    D. tells an individual whether or not to have children

  30. An individual's mitochondrial DNA is inherited

    A. from the female parent
    B. from the male parent
    C. from both parents
    D. neither parent; it is derived from nuclear DNA

  31. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 makes it illegal to discriminate against qualified disabled workers. This act

    A. mandates employers to maintain a staff that includes employees with disabilities
    B. prohibits employers from discriminating against employees with disabilities
    C. provides funding for structural building improvements providing accessibility for disabled persons
    D. requires hiring less qualified individual with disability over more qualified applicant without disability

Mail by Aug. 10, 1997: Genetics Education Center-Course I, KUMC, 4023 Wescoe, 3901 Rainbow Blvd., KC, KS 66160-7318 Fax (913) 588-4060 Phone (913) 588-3886 or e-mail: dcollins@kumc.edu

This form is one of the assignments in the:

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Debra Collins, M.S. CGC, Genetic Counselor, dcollins@kumc.edu


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